2025 Authoritative Oracle 1Z0-1124-24 Intereactive Testing Engine
2025 Authoritative Oracle 1Z0-1124-24 Intereactive Testing Engine
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Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2024 Networking Professional Sample Questions (Q103-Q108):
NEW QUESTION # 103
Which OCI offering should you use?WHEN a load balancer with Layer 4 (protocol-based) traffic distribution for a web application is needed
- A. Flexible Load Balancer with Network Load Balancer mode
- B. Gateway Load Balancer
- C. Application Delivery Director (ADC)
- D. Flexible Load Balancer with Application Load Balancer mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
Here,s why the other options are not as good:
A). Application Delivery Director (ADC): While ADCs offer Layer 4 capabilities, they also support advanced Layer 7 functionalities like content switching and application-specific routing. These extra features come at a higher cost, which might be unnecessary if you only need Layer 4 load balancing.C. Flexible Load Balancer with Application Load Balancer mode: This mode specializes in Layer 7 (application-layer) load balancing, focusing on factors like URL paths, cookies, and headers. While it supports Layer 4 balancing as well, it,s overkill for your current need and might incur unnecessary costs.D. Gateway Load Balancer: This offering is currently in preview and not generally available. It,s designed for internet gateway-level load balancing, not within a public subnet for your web application.Flexible Load Balancer with Network Load Balancer mode: This configuration provides the perfect balance:
It leverages the Flexible Load Balancer,s core capabilities and cost-effectiveness.
It offers dedicated Network Load Balancer mode, specifically designed for high-throughput, low-latency, Layer 4 load balancing based on source IP address and port.
This is ideal for efficiently distributing traffic across your web servers without needing unnecessary Layer 7 features.
NEW QUESTION # 104
When working with CloudShell, which security best practice is MOST important to follow?
- A. Sharing your CloudShell access credentials with other users in your team.
- B. Regularly updating the OCI CLI version within CloudShell for security patches.
- C. Utilizing strong passwords and enabling multi-factor authentication (MFA) for your OCI account.
- D. Leaving your CloudShell session open and unattended with active SSH connections.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A). Leaving your CloudShell session open and unattended with active SSH connections is a significant security risk. Anyone who gains access to your device can potentially access your CloudShell environment and perform unauthorized actions.B. Sharing your CloudShell access credentials with others, even within your team, is highly discouraged. This grants them full access to your CloudShell environment, potentially compromising sensitive data and resources.C. While updating the OCI CLI version for security patches is important, it,s not the single most critical practice. It,s a proactive measure that should be combined with other fundamental security steps.Strong passwords and MFA are the bedrock of account security. They significantly reduce the risk of unauthorized access, even if someone manages to obtain your credentials. MFA adds an extra layer of protection by requiring a second factor, like a code from your phone, to verify your identity.
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which best practice should be followed when managing IAM policies for inter-tenancy communication?
- A. Review and update IAM policies regularly to reflect changes in access requirements.
- B. Use resource-level policies whenever possible to avoid complex service-level policies.
- C. Grant broad permissions to simplify access control and reduce administrative overhead.
- D. Grant users in other tenancies the "Administrator" permission for efficient management.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Here,s why the other options are not ideal:
A). Granting users in other tenancies the "Administrator" permission is a major security risk. It provides excessive access and undermines the principle of least privilege, exposing your resources to potential misuse.B. While resource-level policies can be more specific and secure, using service-level policies might be necessary depending on the communication method and required actions. Don,t force resource-level policies if they limit functionality or create unnecessary complexity.D. Granting broad permissions directly contradicts the principle of least privilege. It increases the attack surface and makes it harder to maintain security.Therefore, the most crucial practice is to regularly review and update your IAM policies. This ensures they:
Reflect current access needs: Adjust permissions as user roles or resource usage changes.
Adhere to the principle of least privilege: Grant only the minimum required permissions.
Minimize security risks: Address potential vulnerabilities and unauthorized access.
NEW QUESTION # 106
What is the role of a subnet in a VCN in OCI?
- A. It is a network that operates independently of a VCN.
- B. It is a separate network from a VCN.
- C. It is a subdivision of a VCN.
- D. It is a larger network that contains VCNs.
Answer: C
Explanation:
B). It is a separate network from a VCN: Subnets are not separate networks; they are logical subdivisions within a single VCN.C. It is a larger network that contains VCNs: VCNs are the larger networks, and subnets are smaller divisions within them.D. It is a network that operates independently of a VCN: Subnets depend on and inherit configurations from their parent VCN. They cannot operate independently.Subnets within a VCN serve several key purposes:
Logical organization: They divide the VCN into smaller, more manageable segments, improving network organization and administration.
Security isolation: Resources within different subnets can have varying security policies and access controls, enhancing overall security posture.
Traffic control: Route tables associated with subnets define how traffic flows within the VCN and externally, offering granular control over communication paths.
Resource segmentation: By placing specific resources in designated subnets, you can optimize performance and simplify network management.
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which statement about BGP route propagation in transitive routing to other OCI regions is TRUE?
- A. BGP automatically learns routes between DRGs without any configuration.
- B. All DRGs involved must use the same BGP AS number for route exchange.
- C. BGP peering agreements must be established between all DRGs for proper communication.
- D. You only need to configure BGP on the DRG connected to the on-premises network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Here,s why the other statements are inaccurate:
A). BGP automatically learns routes between DRGs without any configuration: This is false. While BGP facilitates dynamic routing exchange, it requires configuration to establish peering sessions and define how routes are exchanged between DRGs.B. You only need to configure BGP on the DRG connected to the on-premises network: This is false. BGP needs to be configured on all DRGs participating in the transitive routing, not just the one connected to the on-premises network. Each DRG needs to exchange routing information with other DRGs to enable traffic flow across regions.C. All DRGs involved must use the same BGP AS number for route exchange: This is false. While using the same AS number simplifies configuration, it,s not mandatory. DRGs can have different AS numbers and exchange routes through BGP peering as long as the peering agreements and route policies are properly configured.
NEW QUESTION # 108
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